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Does he know her language (he identified it when he saw writing) or does she know English? And, if this is being translated from the Bandar language for us, why use archaic English? (BTW, it was archaic in 1611, but the revisers who did the KJV thought archaic language sounded “holier” and preferred holy to accurate.)
Does he know her language (he identified it when he saw writing) or does she know English? And, if this is being translated from the Bandar language for us, why use archaic English? (BTW, it was archaic in 1611, but the revisers who did the KJV thought archaic language sounded “holier” and preferred holy to accurate.)